The Daily Bread 0029: Bible Fluency (Fourth Part)

Difficult or "controversial" issues (although they should not be) such as divorce and re-marriage, keeping the Sabbath, homosexuality, etc. Have a clear and evident answer in the light of the Bible as long as you look at it in a fluid and contextual way. For example, the question of divorce and remarriage:

· Divorce and re-marriage What the Bible tells us frequently, fluently and in context on this topic:

Genesis 2:24 Therefore a man shall leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife, and they shall be one flesh. - this first biblical evidence gives us the notion that a marriage becomes one (indivisible) flesh that can not be broken. In theology there is the term "law of first mention" this indicates that the first time we find a term, word or name the Bible usually describes it and so it will be used in the rest of the scriptures unless explicitly stated. In this case marriage is described in the first instance that we see it as one flesh. God did not make different options for Adam, I only believe Eve. After that we see the patriarchs taking more than one wife, however, this was against biblical law, Deuteronomy 17:17 Nor shall he increase for himself women, lest his heart should be turned aside: neither silver nor gold will increase for himself in a great copy. This is an order from God for every king that Israel has in order to have more than one woman and only the first one you chose remains the norm in Malachi 2:14 But you will say: Why? For the LORD hath testified between thee and the woman of thy youth, against whom thou hast been unfaithful, being her companion, and the wife of thy covenant. Here we see God testifying against Israel not receiving their offerings, and God himself asks the rhetorical question, why? And the answer is for being disloyal and unfaithful to the woman of his youth.

One of the "theology" schools as to the law came to Jesus to ask them about marriage, Matthew 19: 3 Then the Pharisees came to him, tempting him and saying to him, "Is it lawful for a man to divorce his wife for any cause ? Jesus' response is in tune with the context of the rest of the Bible, that is to say there is a flow of genesis to apocalypse in this matter, so that I answer him the same thing that God had ordained at the beginning Matthew 19: 4 He, And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read that he that made them at the first, male and female did them? 5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and cleave unto his wife, and the two shall be one meat? 6 So they are no longer two, but one flesh; Therefore, what God has joined together, let not man put asunder. This response from Jesus must have made the point clear: divorce is non-existent. While God has given authority to civil authorities to marry (a Judge) God has not given him the authority to divorce, so no divorce is actually valid before God.

The man wanting to justify his sin, or preference for divorce then comes up with another question, Matthew 19: 7 They said to him, "Why then did Moses command to give a divorce, and repudiate it? This is a "grab you," with this they intended to put Jesus between the sword and the wall, since the "great" Moses allowed divorce, Jesus clarifies that this was due to the hardness of their heart. Many leaders before the pressure of the people make laws that do not reflect the position of God, and this is what happened, but Jesus reminds them: more was not the beginning (verse 8). So it is clear that there is no divorce before God. If we look at the old men of God we can see the worst marriages, but there are no divorces. Abraham had all sorts of problems with Sarah and the woman Sarah gave him (Agar) for wife, Jacob had two wives in competitions, but there are no divorces, in short, it is impossible to find a biblical figure who has divorced his first wife , However, it often happens today. If there is no divorce, how could re-marriage exist?

Many want to use Matthew 5:32 But I say unto you, he that divorces his wife, except for fornication, causes her to commit adultery; And he that marrieth her that is divorced committeth adultery. As the key verse to divorce and remarry when the spouse is unfaithful. But how is it possible to do doctrine of one verse, even though there is another that contradicts it? 1 Corinthians 7:10 But to those who are united in marriage, I command, not I, but the Lord: Let the woman not depart from husband; 11 And if he be separated, remain unmarried, or reconcile with her husband; And that the husband does not abandon his wife. These verses directly oppose the verse of Matthew 5:32, if that is the case we should know that there is a problem in fluency, since the bible does not contradict itself. The problem then must be that we have misinterpreted Matthew 5:32, since we must interpret a verse that seems to contradict the others in the light of most verses. If we give this misinterpretation of Matthew 5:32 would be like going against the fluidity of the remains of the verses is as if the river began to climb a mountain, what we have to do then is to interpret this verse in context with others , In order to give due interpretation. Notice that this verse says, "he that divorces his wife, except for fornication" most people contend that if his wife is unfaithful then he may divorce (note that this verse does not refer to remarrying Rather the divorce), however, the proponents immediately say that they give permission to remarry.) The reality is that if someone is unfaithful to their spouse, they have committed adultery, Jesus knew what adultery was, yet he used the word fornication, for what? Fornication is all sexual sin, so this verse is not referring to infidelity, if it was so Jesus would have said it, he uses fornication, because he is talking about a fornication relationship.

(New translations use the word infidelity, this is an improper interpretation, not a translation, which is what they should have done). In other words, Jesus is saying if there is a relationship, or marriage that is fornication, then if you can divorce, because God has not accepted that relationship in the first place. An example of this is if two men marry is a fornicating relationship (it is homosexuality) these can be divorced (this is where "except for fornication" applies) and everyone is free to marry a woman as God does not accept this marriage. If a woman marries her pope, she can divorce is fornication (incest) and can marry another person; If a man marries a woman who was divorced is fornication (adultery) then if he can divorce and remarry because before God they are not married. Not only can we cross reference with what Paul says to see that this is the true interpretation of Matthew 5:32; Paul says in Corinthians 7: 2 but because of whoredoms, let every man have his own wife, and let every man have his own husband. Notice that Paul says because of fornication, and more than this tells us: each one has his own husband, and each husband his own wife, why? Because many had women and husbands who were not their own, so Jesus also said the same, that if anyone gives a letter of divorce to his wife would make her adulterate (since if she is not fornicating is faithful to the husband, eventually seek Another man) unless the relationship is fornication, then I could give you a divorce letter.

Written By Robert Pool
Translated by Bruno Smith